🐕‍🦺 Hikko Mamittakim We Kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh Wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem

Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh WA Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem." It is my sincerest of hopes that "machmad" is indeed the correct translation and/or transcription. Can you please provide the sufficient evidence so that I can use it in the future. Thank you! Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem." "His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem." In the Hebrew language im is added for respect. Similarely im is added after the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to make it Muhammadim. WhenArchangel Gabrail commanded Muhammad (pbuh) by saying Iqra - "Read", he replied, "I am not learned". 4. prophet Muhammad (pbuh) mentioned by name in the old testament: Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16: "Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem." Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem." Namun dalam Injil yang sudah diterjemahkan ke dalam bahasa Inggris, nama Muhammadim digantikan dengan altogether lovely, terjemahannya sebagai berikut : "His mouth is most sweet; yea, he is altogether lovely. Itreads "Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem." "His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem." In the Hebrew language 'Im'is added for respect. Similarely Imis added after the name of Prophet Muhammad ﷺto make it Muhammadim - "Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem."[Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16:]" Translation :- His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem." Hikko Mamittakim kita Kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Yerusalem."Song of Solomon 5:16 Terjemahan," mulutnya adalah kemanisan itu sendiri; dia adalah Muhammad. Ini adalah tercinta saya, ini adalah kawan saya, puteri-puteri Yerusalem." Klik . Dicatat oleh Marhabawa s-salam/Bienvenue et Paix "Ce site se veut être un espace de dialogue entre Chrétiens et Musulmans. Les débats entre Chrétiens ( Catholiques versus Protestants ) comme entre Musulmans ( Sunnites versus Chiites ) ne sont donc pas admis sur nos différents forums. Il est interdit de contester publiquement la modération sauf par MP Hereis a quote of a similar claim: Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16: "Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh WA Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem." Translation:"His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is Mohammad. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem." W1cv0F. Trying to validate the presence of Muhammad in the bible, Muslims utilize the apparently scriptural confirmation of such idea. Apparently, as nothing expressed the term “muhammadim” in certain note. Muslims say its “muhammadim”. The Hebrew used the term “machmadim”. So there is nothing certain. Granting that its “muhammadim”, does it denotes the idea of a proper noun? Or was it simply, an adjective? Now for the sake of factual evaluation, is there certainty to the concept that muhammadim is a proper name or was it simply an adjective? For example, JOYFUL is both noun and adjective. JOYFUL as a proper noun would obviously be understood as a name. Example My name is joyful. JOYFUL as an adjective would be understood as a descriptive term. Its not a name. Example The joyful crowd praised Jesus. Comparatively speaking, is muhammadim a proper noun or simply an adjective? That is something to be certified first bec if not, we have no way to ascertain muhammad’s presence in the songs of solomon. So is it a noun–or an adjective? Muslims has no answer. The hebrew term used though was “machmadim”. It is either a noun or adjective. Machmadim as adjective can be found in these verses Hosea 96,16; 1 Kings 206; Lamentations 110,11; 24; Isaiah 6410; 2 Chronicles 3619. Machmadim as noun can be found in these verses Ezekiel 2416,21,25. So is this also Muhammad? Nothing certified though that Muhammadim/machmadim in song of Solomon certifies a proper noun. It could simply be an adjective therefore nothing verifies any presence of Muhammad in it–on certain note! I looked it up on the interlinear hebrew bible and it say that Mahammadim or Machmad is a masculine noun. Still, it doesnt affirm if its a proper noun or a common noun bec if its a common noun then, it cannot be a proper name for a person, right? So what is it, is it a proper noun or common noun? Still, nothing verifies Muhammad in it on certain note. And fact is, masculine noun is a common noun if you try on google research–so it cannot be a personal and proper name. Thank you. Muslim scholars have identified verses in the Torah they allege foretell the coming of Muhammad SAW. Yet long before Muhammad’s birth the Jewish people had different tafsir for these prophecies. Is the reasoning of the scholars compatible with the teachings of Judaism? Deuteronomy 1818 – A prophet like Moses AS I will establish a prophet for them from among their brothers, like you, and I will place My words in his mouth; and he shall speak to them all that I shall command him. - Devarim 1818 Suggestion Samau’al al-Maghribi, a Jewish apostate to Islam, identified Muhammad as the subject of this verse. He believed that in this context the “brothers” of the Israelites meant the Ishmaelites, his logic was that because the word used for brothers is singular it had to mean a brother tribe. He went on to say that if the Jews claim this word is mentioned elsewhere in the Bible regarding the Israelites, then reply, “the same word was also used to refer to the Edomites, children of Esau in Deut. 24″. Jewish understanding Akh, or brother in English, appears 94 times in the last 4 books of the Torah, yet it never once describes the descendants of Ishmael AS. 53 times it describes kinsmen Jews 30 times it describes biological brothers 8 times it describes tribesmen 12 Jewish tribes 3 times it describes Edomites Al-Maghribi correctly states that the Torah refers to the Edomites as brothers, but he fails to mention that each time it says “brother” the text goes on to explicitly name them as “the Edomites”. In the absence of this name, like in our verse, brother only ever refers to the Children of Israel AS. That said, even if we were to use al-Maghribi’s logic, the brother of Israel Jacob is not Ishmael but Edom. His theory that the use of brother in the singular infers tribe, takes advantage of the reader’s ignorance of Hebrew which often uses the singular collectively. A mere twelve verses earlier the Torah states, “When the Levite [singular] will come from one of your cities”, yet this verse is clearly referring to the Levites collectively. So too in our verse, the word brother is used collectively to refer to the Israelites. This verse like the ones before and after it, is not documenting an individual prophet, but promising there will be future Jewish prophets and providing the criteria to identify them. Update We were recently presented with an alternative argument which suggested the verse can’t be talking about raising a prophet from the Jews, as if it were the verse would say “I will establish a prophet for you from among your brothers”, instead it says “I will establish a prophet for them from among their brothers”, by using the word them and the word brother it must be referring to the descendants of Yishmael or Esauv. This was an easy mistake to make but to understand how the mistake was made we must read the verse in context. In 189-15 Moses speaks to the Jewish people, establishing that the rest of this dialogue is about the prophecy the Jewish people will experience in the Land of Israel When you have come to the land the Lord, your God, is giving you, you shall not learn to do like the abominations of those nations. There shall not be found among you anyone who passes his son or daughter through fire, a soothsayer, a diviner of [auspicious] times, one who interprets omens, or a sorcerer, or a charmer, a pithom sorcerer, a yido’a sorcerer, or a necromancer. For whoever does these things is an abomination to the Lord, and because of these abominations, the Lord, your God is driving them out from before you. Be wholehearted with the Lord, your God. For these nations, which you are to possess, hearken to diviners of [auspicious] times and soothsayers, but as for you, the Lord, your God, has not given you [things] like these. A prophet from among you, from your brothers, like me, the Lord, your God will set up for you; you shall hearken to him. This is most probably the cause of confusion, as Moses says “A prophet from among you, from your brothers, like me, the Lord, your God will set up for you” which is almost identical to verse 18 but because Moses is addressing the people he uses the pronoun “you”, where as in verse 18 Moses is quoting something God had previously communicated to him And the LORD said unto me They have well said that which they have spoken. I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee; and I will put My words in his mouth, and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. As God is addressing Moses about the people the correct pronoun to use is “them”, had God been addressing the people the pronoun could have been “you”. This is the correct and common linguistic style of the Torah, there is no reason to think “them” should mean the descendants of Yishmael as there are numerous instances throughout the Torah where God refers to the Jewish people as them לָהֶם, for instance But as for thee, stand thou here by Me, and I will speak unto thee all the commandment, and the statutes, and the ordinances, which thou shalt teach them, that they may do them in the land which I give them to possess it.'” – Devarim 527 Song of Solomon 516 / Song of Songs 516 – Muhammad is named in Hebrew in the Song of Solomon His palate is sweet, and he is altogether desirable; this is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem. - Shir Hashirim 516 Suggestion Zakir Naik writes that “Prophet Muhammad pbuh is mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16 Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem.’ – His mouth is most sweet yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem.’ Jewish understanding If Zakir is suggesting a Hebrew word is the name of Muhammad SAW it is essential he transliterates the word correctly. Unfortunately Zakir’s Hebrew isn’t correct, but as the other words he transliterates are also incorrect we believe this is a mistake made out of ignorance rather than intentionally misleading people. The text actually reads Hebrew Chiko mametakim vekulo machamadim zeh dodi vezeh rei’i benot yerushalayim ZakirHikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem The text is completely different and is clearly not a reference to Muhammad SAW, which in Hebrew is spelt מוחמד not מחמדים. In Hebrew Machamadim simply means desirable/ lovely, to suggest it is naming Muhammad is as foolish as saying “santa” and “suntan” are the same word because they have similar consonants. Shir HaShirim is a poem that describes the love the Jewish people have for Allah SWT. Jews should love Allah SWT to the point where their soul is so bound with the love of God, that they are obsessive over it, lovesick, as one who cannot stop thinking about a woman, and contemplates it constantly, while awake, while eating and sleeping… greater than this should be the love Jews have for God. As Solomon is actually praising God in Shir Hashirim, suggesting that Muhammad is the subject of the text is akin to declaring that Muhammad and Allah SWT are the same. This is outright idolatry and such thoughts should be banished from the believers mind. Deuteronomy 332 – A prophet from Mecca The LORD came from Sinai – having shone forth to them from Seir, having appeared from Mount Paran, and then approached with some of the holy myriads – from His right hand He presented the fiery Torah to them. - Devarim 332 Suggestion Al-Maghribi also considered this to be a reference to Moses, Jesus and Muhammad. It speaks of God sending a prophet to Sinai Moses, then another to the village of Sa’ir near Jerusalem Jesus and the last prophet was sent to Paran, where Ishmael settled Muhammad. Jewish understanding Hofia, “He appeared”, is written in the past tense, if it would have read yofia, “He will appear” it could allude to an event that is yet to occur a prophet in Paran. But the verse uses the past tense because its describing Allah SWT descending from heaven to give the Torah on Mount Sinai, an event that had already occurred. Isaiah 421-13 – The chosen one Behold My servant, I will support him, My chosen one, whom My soul desires; I have placed My spirit upon him, he shall promulgate justice to the nations. He shall neither cry nor shall he raise [his voice]; and he shall not make his voice heard outside. A breaking reed he shall not break; and a flickering flaxen wick he shall not quench; with truth shall he execute justice. Neither shall he weaken nor shall he be broken, until he establishes justice in the land, and for his instruction, islands shall long. So said God the Lord, the Creator of the heavens and the One Who stretched them out, Who spread out the earth and what springs forth from it, Who gave a soul to the people upon it and a spirit to those who walk thereon. I am the Lord; I called you with righteousness and I will strengthen your hand; and I formed you, and I made you for a people’s covenant, for a light to nations. To open blind eyes, to bring prisoners out of a dungeon, those who sit in darkness out of a prison. I am the Lord, that is My Name; and My glory I will not give to another, nor My praise to the graven images. The former things, behold they have come to pass, and the new things I tell; before they sprout I will let you hear. Sing to the Lord a new song, His praise from the end of the earth, those who go down to the sea and those therein, the islands and their inhabitants. The desert and its cities shall raise [their voice]; Kedar shall be inhabited with villages; the rock dwellers shall exult, from the mountain peaks they shall shout. They shall give glory to the Lord, and they shall recite His praise on the islands. The Lord shall go out like a hero; like a warrior shall He arouse zeal; He shall shout, He shall even cry, He shall overpower His foes. - Yeshayahu 421-13 Suggestion There are those that believe this verse speaks of Muhammad, the beloved of God. His messenger that will bring down a law to be awaited in the isles and who “shall not fail nor be discouraged till he has set judgement on earth”. Verse 11, connects the awaited one with the descendants of Kedar, who according to Genesis 2513 was the second son of Ishmael, the ancestor of prophet Muhammad. Jewish understanding The Torah establishes the subject of these verses when it says “My chosen one” Ps 1354, Isa 454 and a “light to nations” Isa 496 & 603 two expressions that scripture uses exclusively to describe the nation of Israel.* Trying to link Muhammad’s ethnicity to the prophecy of Kedar relies upon a distortion of sense and a wishful imagination. Verse eleven is actually a vision of the tent dwellers of Kedar building permanent cities and villages at the time the world comes to recognize the sovereignty of Allah. * This follows the mainstream position as relayed by Rashi, Ibn Ezra cites the subject as Cyrus according to Saadiah Gaon or Isaiah, while the Radak believes the subject is the Mashiach. Hababkkuk 33 – The Holy One from Paran Allah came from Teman; yea, the Holy One from Mt. Paran, with everlasting might. His glory covered the heavens and His splendor filled the earth - Chavakuk 33 Suggestion Some read the verse “[God’s help] came from [Tayma, an Oasis North of Medina], yea, [Muhammad] from [Mecca, he traveled to Medina after being persecuted]. His glory covered the heavens and his splendor filled the earth” Jewish understanding As the verse is clearly talking about God this mistranslation borders on idolatry. To begin with it spells out Allah in Hebrew and then names the Creator again as the Holy One. All Muslims would love to find the foretelling of Muhammad in the Torah, but we beg the reader not to switch verses that praise Allah to verses that praise Muhammad; For there is no greater insult to monotheism than the elevation of men to deities. Quite simply, no. The claim in the video series you linked is patently What is being claimed? The argument presented in your videos is based entirely on the following passage in the Old Testament book of Song of Solomon. Song of Solomon 516 ASV2 16 His mouth is most sweet; Yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem. I have highlighted the phrase in question here. The claim in the video is that the phrase translated here as altogether lovely is actually the proper name "Mohammed" with a respectful plural ending and is incorrectly translated to its meaning. The video and several other sites on the net suggest taking the root Hebrew word מחמד into an online translator. The results they show have two machine translation sites returning "Mohamed" as the Why doesn't this mean anything? The flaw in this argument is that it proves absolutely nothing. To show why, I will give some translation examples from a language I know well. While it is relatively rare in English with our mish-mash of nationalities, in many languages even today and even more so through history it is common for proper names to be based words with straight forward meanings in their native tongues. I have Turkish friends with names like Güven, Gül, Nehir and Pınar. In the previous sentences I capitalized them and from the context it is clear that those words refer to people, but these are the ordinary everyday words for trust, rose, river and spring respectively. In fact most of the people I know have names with similar ordinary meanings. If I were to say "Güven çiçekçiden bir gül aldı," Güven bought a rose from the florist there is absolutely no question from the context that I am using Güven as a proper name and gül as a type of flower. You don't even need the capitalization or know my friends names. The immediate context of the words makes it clear how they are being used. Back to your videos. The accusation is raised that "we have no right to translate names". This is, in itself, true. You will note that in the English translation I provided for the Turkish sentence above, I have done the work of interpreting it for you and retained the proper names but translated the words with ordinary meanings. If I had given the translation as "Trust bought a Gül from the florist", my competence with the language must be called into question. The issue before us is when to translate a word as a name and when to give the meaning. For this, we need the context and to understand the thing we're translating in the first place. What does the context tell us? Song of Solomon is a notoriously difficult book to translate. The Hebrew is difficult and sometimes obscure. Even when you sort out the words, it is difficult to interpret what it is all supposed to mean. Jews and Christians differ widely on what to do with the passage, and even among Christian traditions there is some debate as to what the imagery refers to. However, those interpretation difficulties do not concern us here. Whether or not the passage was intended as an allegory or a plain description, it is clear that the immediate context of the passage is a woman addressing her lover. Even with two different religions claiming this as a holy text and vast differences in interpretation, the simple translation of these particular words has never really been in doubt because the face value translation of מחמד to mean lovely fits the context of both the sentence and the book. The verses leading up to this are in the voice of the woman describing the physical characteristics of her man. His hair, his eyes, his legs, etc. are all described in terms of appeal and desire. Verse 16 starts out talking about how sweet his mouth is and then says that he is desirable as a whole. Given the context and the time it was written, there is not a shred of evidence this should be translated any other way than it has been in every one of hundreds of languages by thousands of translators. And the Hebrew? One of the basic claims in the video is that the -im suffix used on the Hebrew root word should be seen as a respectful plural just as it is in Arabic, where saying "Mohammed-im" does apparently4 have that effect. According to Gesenius the standard Hebrew Grammar, the respectful plural is quite foreign to Hebrew. The "let us" passages of Genesis, which many take as plural of majesty, Gesenius takes as self deliberation. In the verse above, the word מַחְמַד is correctly being translated 'lovely' and the suffix that makes the contextual form of מַחֲמַדִּים is a plural that intensifies the meaning, rendering the final translation 'altogether lovely'. This is not out of place. In fact the entire poem has similar constructs, including the previous line of the same verse. 'Very sweet' is one word, ממתקים, the root ממתק means 'sweet' and the plural makes it 'exceedingly sweet' or 'very sweet'.5 It is utterly irresponsible to take this standard grammar form that translates consistently as an intensifier on a series of adjective and render the final instance as a proper name just because it sounds like one in a later language and translate the suffix as a respectful plural according to the later language rather than the one in which it was written. But why does it sound the same? Lots of words in one language might be combined as a series of sounds and understood as something entirely different in another language. The videos include the sound of a Jewish Rabbi reading Hebrew text in question. To an ear that does not speak Hebrew, the combination of sounds making up the name Mohammed are clearly in there. Linguistically, this is just as absurd as the other line of reasoning. Just because a combination of sounds appearing in the normal course of a language sounds like something else in another language doesn't make it so. If I asked somebody on the street in Turkey "Where can I find a peach?" in English, they might look at me strange because they only word they heard in their own language was "bastard". Just because what used to be a root word in one language ends up sounding like a proper name in a later language does not mean that every instance of the original root word is a reference to a famous figure with the later name. The connection simply doesn't mean anything. And Jesus? Your question includes a one liner concerning a claim not actually found in your video Does Jesus predict the coming of Muhammad in the Bible? The simple answer to this is no. It is difficult to debunk this "claim" since you haven't even established in the question what the claim is, but let me do your homework for you. The Islamic Research Foundation makes the following claim which you will hear echoed throughout the Muslim world in various forms "Ahmed" or "Muhammad" meaning "the one who praises" or "the praised one" is almost the translation of the Greek word Periclytos. In the Gospel of John 1416, 1526, and 167. The word 'Comforter' is used in the English translation for the Greek word Paracletos which means advocate or a kind friend rather than a comforter. Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos. Jesus pbuh actually prophesised Ahmed by name. Even the Greek word Paraclete refers to the Prophet pbuh who is a mercy for all creatures. As far as I know, this is the only place the NT or Jesus is commonly claimed to mention Mohamed. I presume is is the subject of your inquiry. This claim, like the one above, is also patently ridiculous. There are several other variants of this, but they all hinge on really poor linguistics. Determining the meaning of the Greek word παράκληο in context is not easy. Greek scholar Raymond Brown is often cited by Muslim apologists on this issue because his translation of John keeps a transliteration of the Greek as a sort of name instead of translating the meaning as most other English translations have done and rendering it as helper, advocate, comforter or counselor. However, his intention was to clear up the usage and understand it better in context. His understanding of who/what fills the role referred to can be clearly seen from this quote Thus the basic function of the Paraclete are twofold he comes to the disciples and dwells within them, guiding and teaching them about Jesus; but he is hostile to the world and puts the world on trial. Whether Christian or secular, Greek scholars investigating this passage all conclude that this passage must be understood in context with the related passages from the same authors and time period that describe the coming of the Holy Spirit. Whether you believe in such a thing at all, it is clear that the disciples did based on Jesus words, and that Jesus words as recorded in Greek fit with their contemporary understanding. Only a series of linguistic flying-leaps can connect this usage with another word in another language that doesn't sound the same but happens to have a similar meaning. Here is a similar series of connections My name is derived from a Hebrew name having a connotation of "faithful". The Turkish for faithful is "sadık" which sounds a lot like "sağdıç" meaning groomsmen. Ergo my parents predicted that their son would be somebody's faithful best man. There are just too many unsupported jumps for this claim to hold water. Even the text from the IRF is worded with tentative phases such as "almost the translation of". They are making the jump from two words in two unrelated languages that have similar meanings to one being a prophecy of the other - in spite of other solid contextual evidence about the intended meaning being to the contrary. Footnotes Frankly this particular claim is one of the weaker ones made. There are several other verses more commonly cited as "proof" that hold more water than this one. There is an Isaiah verse with a similar translation issue. The case holds "more" water because at least it happens to be a prophecy, but still sinks because of the translation issue explained above. The usage of the ASV translation here was selected at random, the English translation used makes absolutely no difference to the argument. No serious translation work has translated this passage in any other way. While legitimate as far as it goes, I think it's somewhat telling that given the same input Google translator returns a clue in the form of the noun roots loveliness, delight, desire or charm. I didn't research the Arabic here, I'm only going off of the popular claim. Thanks to Frank Luke for some help with the Hebrew grammar here.

hikko mamittakim we kullo muhammadim zehdoodeh wa zehraee bayna jerusalem